Osteoarthritis and arthritis 

Case STUDY:

A 57-year-old male construction worker comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of pain in his right hip. The pain has progressively gotten worse over the last 2 months and he has been having trouble sleeping. There is little pain in the morning, but he is a bit stiff.

The pain increases as the day wears on.  has taken acetaminophen without any relief but states that the ibuprofen does work a little bit. He is anxious since the hip pain has limited his ability to work and he is afraid that his boss will fire him if he cannot perform his usual duties.

There is no history of past trauma or infection in the joint. Past medical history noncontributory. Social history without history of alcohol, tobacco, or illicit drug use. Physical exam remarkable for decreased range of motion of the right hip.

BMI 34 kg/mRadiographs in the office demonstrated asymmetrical joint space narrowing of the right hip with osteophyte formation. Several areas of the hip showed bone-on-bone contact with loss of the articular cartilage. The APRN tells the patient he has osteoarthritis (OA) and refers the patient to an orthopedist for evaluation of his need for a total hip replacement.

Question:

Describe how osteoarthritis develops and forms and distinguishes primary osteoarthritis from secondary arthritis.   

Atrial fibrillation

Case study:

An 83-year-old man presents with a history of atrial fibrillation (AF), hypertension, and diabetes.

His daughter, who accompanied the patient, states that yesterday the patient had a period when he could not speak or understand words and that approximately 4 weeks prior he staggered against a wall and was unable to stand unaided because of weakness in his legs. She states that both instances lasted approximately a half-hour. She was unable to persuade her father to go to the emergency room either time.

Today he suffered another episode of right-sided weakness, dysarthria, and difficulty with speech. Past medical history: Hypertension for 15 years, well-controlled; diabetes for the past 10 years, and  Medications: Diltiazem CD 300 mg daily; lisinopril 40 mg daily; metformin 500 mg twice daily; aspirin 81 mg daily and atorvastatin 20 mg po qhs.

Social history: reported former smoker with 40 pack-year histories. Alcohol -drinks one beer a day. Denies any other substance abuse. Review of systems: Denies dyspnea, dizziness, or syncope; complains that he cannot move or feel his right arm or leg. Difficulty with speech.

Physical exam: Vitals: height = 70 inches; weight = 185 pounds; body mass index = 26.5; BP = 134/82 mm Hg; heart rate = 88 bpm at rest, irregularly irregular pattern.

HEENT: remarkable for expressive aphasia, eyes with contralateral homonymous hemianopsia.

No loss of sensation but unable to voluntarily move right arm or leg.

The patient was diagnosed with a right middle cerebral artery vascular accident (CVA) secondary to atrial fibrillation (AF)

Question:

How does atrial fibrillation contribute to the development of a CVA? 

Transient ischemic attacks

Case study:

A 68-year-old man was brought to the emergency department by his family.

During his routine morning walk, he noticed a sudden onset of left facial numbness associated with a dull headache on the right posterior aspect of his head. He was staggering to the right side and feeling unsteady and nauseated, with no vomiting.

He telephoned his wife, who noticed his speech was slow and slurred, but there was no word-finding difficulty. His family immediately took him to the hospital.

There was a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, ischemic heart disease (MI and PCI with a bare-metal stent in 2007), and probable transient ischemic attack (TIA) at the time of cardiac intervention. His medication included atenolol, ramipril, simvastatin, aspirin, and clopidogrel.

Within one hour, the patient’s symptoms had totally resolved. The diagnosis of transient ischemic attack was made, and the patient was discharged to home with instructions to contact his healthcare provider (HCP) for follow-up.

Question:

Why did the patient’s symptoms totally resolve?

Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)

Case study:

A 22-year-old male was an unrestrained front seat passenger of a car traveling at 50 miles per hour. The driver swerved to avoid hitting a deer that darted in front of the car and hit a tree. EMS on the scene noted a stellate fracture of the windshield on the passenger side.

The patient was non-responsive at the scene when the paramedics arrived, and his pupils were unequal with the left pupil larger and sluggish to react to light. He was placed in a hard-cervical collar per the protocol and log rolled onto a long backboard.

He was breathing spontaneously at the scene, but pulse oximetry in the EMS unit revealed a SaOof 78% on room air. He was intubated at the scene for airway protection and transported to a Level 1 trauma center. Glasgow Coma Scale=3

After a full trauma workup, the patient was diagnosed with an isolated traumatic brain injury with acute subdural hematoma secondary to the coup-contrecoup mechanism of injury.

He was emergently taken to the operating room for craniotomy after which he was taken to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) for close monitoring. He had an intracranial bolt for measurements of his intracranial pressure (ICP).

Question:

Explain the differences between primary and secondary traumatic brain injuries (TBIs)? 

The APRN is called by the ICU staff because the patient’s ICP has risen to 22 mmHg. The APRN recognizes the urgent need to lower the ICP. The APRN institutes measures to decrease the ICP and increase the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). What are the factors that determine CPP?

Spinal Cord Injuries and Neurogenic Shocks

Case study:

A 22-year-old male was unrestrained front seat passenger of a car traveling at 50 miles per hour. The driver swerved to avoid hitting a deer that darted in front of the car and hit a tree.

The patient was ejected from the vehicle. He was awake and alert at the scene when the paramedics arrived, and his pupils were equal and reactive to light. He was placed in a hard-cervical collar per the protocol and log rolled onto a long backboard.

He was breathing spontaneously at the scene, but pulse oximetry in the EMS unit revealed a SaOof 88% on room air. He was placed on 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask and was taken to a Level I trauma center with the following vital signs:

 

Vital signs: BP 90/50, Pulse 48 and regular, Respirations 24 and shallow with some use of accessory muscles, temp 95.2 F rectally. He was awake and answering questions appropriately but says he cannot feel his arms or legs.

Glasgow Coma Scale 14. His skin was warm and dry with minor abrasions noted on his arms. According to family members, past medical history noncontributory and social history revealed only occasional alcohol use and no tobacco or vaping history.

Full work up in the ED revealed a fracture-dislocation of C4 with assumed complete tetraplegia (formerly called quadriplegia). No other injuries were noted. He was given several liters of IV fluid, but his blood pressure remained low.

Questions:

Explain the differences between primary and secondary spinal cord injury (SCI)? 

What is spinal shock and how it is different from neurogenic shock? 

Alzheimer’s disease and beta-amyloid peptides

Case study:

A 67-year-old male presents to the clinic along with his family with a chief complaint of having problems with his short-term memory. His family had dismissed these problems and attributed them to the aging process.

Over time they have noticed changes in his behavior, along with increased confusion and difficulty completing basic tasks. He got lost driving home from the bowling alley and had to be brought home by the police department. He is worried that he may have Alzheimer’s Disease (AD).

Past medical and social history positive for a minor cerebral vascular accident when he was 50 years old but without any residual motor or sensory defects. No history of alcohol or tobacco use. Current medication is clopidogrel 75 mg po qd.  Neurological testing confirms the diagnosis of AD.

Question:

What is Alzheimer’s Disease and how does amyloid-beta factor into the development and progression of the disease

Myasthenia gravis

Case study:

61-year-old male complains of intermittent weakness and muscle fatigue that has progressively worsened over the past month. He was an internationally known extreme mountain climber but now he says he has difficulty in getting his morning paper. Initially he thought his symptoms of profound leg weakness and fatigue were due to his age and history of injuries from mountain climbing.

Over the past few months, he also reports having noticed “blurriness” whenworking on his antique train collection or reading for long periods of time. He has developed intermittent double vision that seems to be worse when reading at bedtime. He also reports an occasional “droopy” eye lid. Past medical and social history  Physical exam reveals weakness of right extra ocular muscle (EOM) with repetition. There is positive nystagmus and symmetrical upper extremity weakness with fasciculations. Lower extremities within normal limits (WNL).   The APRN suspects the patient has myasthenia gravis (MG).

Question:

What is the underlying pathophysiology of MG?  

Multiple sclerosis and Myelin

CASE STUDY:

A 32-year-old white female presents to Urgent Care with complaints of blurry vision and “fuzzy thinking” which has been present for the last several weeks. She works as an executive for an insurance company and puts her symptoms down to the stress of preparing the quarterly report.

Today, she noticed that her symptoms were worse and were accompanied by some fine tremors in her hands. She has been having difficulty concentrating and has difficulty voiding. She remembers her eyes were bothering her a few months ago and she went to the optometrist who recommended reading glasses with a small prism to correct double vision. She admits to some weaknesses as well.

No other complaints of fevers, chills, upper respiratory tract infections, or urinary tract infections. Past medical and social history is noncontributory. The physical exam is significant for the 4th cranial nerve palsy. The fundoscopic exam reveals oedema of the right optic nerve causing optic neuritis. Positive nystagmus on positional maneuvers.

There are left visual field deficits. There was short-term memory loss with the listing of familiar objects. The APRN tells the patient that she will be referred to a neurologist due to the high index of suspicion for multiple sclerosis (MS).

Question:

What is multiple sclerosis and how did it cause the above patient’s symptoms? 

Seizure – status epilepticus

CASE STUDY:

A 24-year-old Caucasian male was brought to the Emergency Room (ER) by Emergency Medical System (EMS) after suffering a “convulsion” episode at work that didn’t stop. Upon arrival to the ER, the patient was noted to be actively seizing with tonic-clonic movements.

The patient’s boss accompanied him to the ER and gave a statement that the patient appeared in his usual good health earlier in the morning when they started working at their jobs in an auto parts store. The boss didn’t know of any past medical history. The boss brought along the patients next of kin information, and the patients mother told the ER that the patient has a prior history of seizures but hadn’t had a seizure in several years. The family thought he had “outgrown them.”

Past medical history, other than previous seizures, and social history non-contributory. No history of alcohol or drug abuse and had no history of vaping. The ER APRN diagnoses the patient with status epilepticus and along with the ER staff, initiated appropriate treatment.

Question:

What is a seizure and why is status epilepticus so dangerous for patients?  

lateral epicondylitis and Lateral epicondylitis

CASE STUDY:

A 17-year-old male presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of pain in his right elbow. He says the pain is sharp, especially with pronation and supination.  He noticed the pain several weeks ago after his tennis team went to a regional competition. When he rests, the pain seems to go away. The pain is alleviated when he takes Naprosyn. No history of trauma or infection in the elbow. Past medical and social history non He is a junior at the local high school and just started taking tennis lessons 2 months ago and his coach is working with him on his backhand serve. Focused physical exam revealed point tenderness over the lateral epicondyle which increases with pronation and supination. The APRN diagnoses him with lateral epicondylitis and orders a wrist splint to prevent wrist flexion.

Question:

Why did the APRN feel a wrist splint would be helpful? What patient characteristics lead to this diagnosis.