Which of the following conditions at the atrioventricular node will cause a decrease in heart rate?

Which of the following conditions at the atrioventricular node will cause a decrease in heart rate? Increased calcium permeability. Increased norepinephrine levels

  1. Decreased acetylcholine
  2. Increased sodium permeability
  3. Increased potassium permeability


Question 3


Which of the following is caused by acetylcholine?


  1. Hyperpolarization of the sinoatrial node
  2. Decreased permeability of the sinoatrial node to potassium ions
  3. Increased heart rate
  4. Increased permeability of the cardiac muscle to calcium ions
  5. Depolarization of the atrioventricular node


Question 4


Which of the following is correct regarding sympathetic stimulation of the heart?


  1. Releases norepinephrine at the sympathetic endings
  2. Decreases excitability of the heart
  3. Releases acetylcholine at the sympathetic endings
  4. Decreases sinus nodal discharge rate
  5. Decreases cardiac contractility


Question 5


Parasympathetic (vagal) nerve stimulation can cause ____________.


  1. Increased transmission of impulses
  2. Increased heart rate
  3. Tachycardia
  4. Decreased heart rate




Question 6


The ___________ functions as the pacemaker of the heart because of its faster discharge rate


  1. Sinoatrial node
  2. A-V bundle
  3. Purkinje fibers
  4. A-V node


Question 7


If the sinus node stops discharging, what is the expected heart rate (in beats per minute) if the ventricular Purkinje fibers take over as the cardiac pacemaker?


  1. 40-60
  2. 72-80
  3. 15-40
  4. 55-75


Question 8


When recording lead III on an electrocardiogram, where are the negative electrode(s) placed?


  1. Right leg
  2. Left arm and left leg
  3. Left arm
  4. Right arm and left leg


Question 9


From the AV bundle, the impulse goes into the ___________.


  1. Purkinje fibers
  2. Sinoatrial node
  3. Internodal pathway
  4. AV node





Question 10


The R-to-R distance in the ECG of a patient with tachycardia was measured to be 2.5 squares. The heart rate of the patient is calculated to be ____________.


  1. 300
  2. 120
  3. 200
  4. 400


Question 11


The Q-T interval represents _______________________


  1. Ventricular relaxation
  2. Ventricular contraction
  3. Atrial flutter
  4. Atrial contraction


Question 16


What is the delay between the sinoatrial node discharge and arrival of the action potential at the ventricular septum?


  1. 0.09 seconds
  2. 0.12 seconds
  3. 0.16 seconds
  4. 0.80 seconds


Question 18


The sympathetic nervous system/catecholamines, cause ____ in the resistance of the afferent arterioles and ______ in the resistance of the efferent arterioles resulting in ____ in the glomerular filtration rate during conditions such as severe hemorrhage


            Increase, increase, decreased

            Decrease, decrease, increase

            Decrease, increase, increase

Increase, increase, increase

Decrease, decrease, Decrease,


Question 19


In a successful ventricular defibrillation invention, ventricular muscles resume coordinated contractions after a strong high-voltage electrical current brings all the ventricular muscles into a state of simultaneous refractoriness and quiescence for a few seconds


  1. True
  2. False


Question 20


Shift of the pacemaker from the sinus node to another place in the heart would result in which one of the following conditions.?


  1. Aortic stenosis
  2. Increased ventricular mass
  3. Cardiac arrhythmia
  4. Interventricular septal defect


Question 22


When the P-R interval is above 0.25 s but below 0.45 s and there is an intermittent block of impulses through the A-V node, this condition is indicative of ___________.


  1. Third-degree block
  2. First-degree block
  3. Premature contractions
  4. Second-degree block


Question 23


A 50-year-old man has been having fainting “spells” for about 2 weeks. During the fainting episodes, his electrocardiogram shows a ventricular beat of 25 per minute and 100 P waves per minute. After about 30 seconds of fainting, a normal sinus rhythm reoccurs. Which is likely diagnosis


  1. Third-degree atrioventricular block/ Stokes Adams Syndrome
  2. Atrial flutter
  3. Second-degree atrioventricular block


Question 24


A 70-year-old woman had an electrocardiogram taken at her local hospital, and the diagnosis was atrial fibrillation. Which of the following is likely in someone with atrial fibrillation?


  1. The atrial “a” wave is normal
  2. Ventricular fibrillation normally accompanies atrial fibrillation
  3. The rate of ventricular contraction is regular and slow
  4. The atria have a smaller volume than normal
  5. The P waves of the electrocardiogram are missing


Question 25


Hypoxic conditions can result in ______.


  1. Atrial flutter
  2. Atrial fibrillation
  3. Cardiac arrest
  4. Ventricular fibrillation
  5. First-degree atrioventricular block


Question 26


A 50-year-old man has a blood pressure of 140/85 mm Hg and weighs 200 lbs. He reports that he is not feeling well. His electrocardiogram has no P waves, and he has a heart rate of 42 beats/min. What is his condition?


  1. Third-degree heart block
  2. Second-degree heart block
  3. Sinus bradycardia
  4. Sinoatrial heart block
  5. First-degree heart block


Question 27


At the end of ventricular isovolumic contraction in the cardiac cycle, which of the following occurs?


  1. Aortic and pulmonary valves close
  2. Atrioventricular valves open
  3. Aortic valves and pulmonary valves open
  4. Mitral valve open


Question 28


The most important structures that prevent the backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction are the __________.


  1. Chordae tendinae
  2. Pulmonary valve
  3. Sinoatrial discharge
  4. Purkinje fibers


Question 29


The trigger for SR release of calcium is opening of the ryanodine receptor by ________ in the cardiac muscle and ______ in the skeletal muscle.


  1. change in calcium levels, voltage change
  2. voltage change, sodium influx
  3. potassium influx, sodium influx


Question 30


The most important kidney functions include: (Select All that Apply)


  1. Excretion of metabolic
  2. Regulation of acid base balance
  3. Exertion of drugs and toxins
  4. Gluconeogenesis
  5. Triglyceride digestion


Question 31


Creatinine is a waste product of _______ metabolism while uric acid is a waste product from _______ metabolism


  1. Muscle, nucleic acid
  2. Protein, urea
  3. Protein, nucleic acid
  4. Protein, carbohydrate
  5. Muscle, protein


Question 32


Erythrocyte production by the kidney is by the hormone __________.


  1. Thyroid
  2. Renin
  3. Aldosterone
  4. Adrenaline
  5. Erythropoietin


Question 33


Select the sequential pathway of the blood through the arteries of the kidney


  1. Interlobar-Renal artery – segmental artery – arcuate arteries – interlobular/cortico-radiate artery
  2. Renal artery – interlobar artery- arcuate arteries – segmental artery – interlobar artery
  3. Renal artery – segmental artery – interlobar artery – accurate arteries – 
  4. Renal artery – interlobar artery – segmental artery – accurate arteries – interlobular/cortico-radiate artery


Question 34


Describe the pathway of the formation and excretion of urine.


  1. Papilla – ureter – bladder – urethra – renal pelvis – major calyx – minor calyx
  2. Minor calyx – papilla – renal pelvis – major calyx – ureter – bladder – urethra
  3. Renal pelvis – major calyx – minor calyx – papilla – ureter – bladder – urethra
  4. Papilla – minor calyx – major calyx – renal pelvis – ureter – bladder – urethra


Question 35


70% of the nephrons in the kidney are juxtamedullary nephrons.


  1. True
  2. False





Question 36


The epithelial cells in the early portion of the distal tubules are the main site of action of ______ diuretics.


  1. K+ sparing
  2. Na+ channel inhibiting
  3. Loop
  4. Thiazide


Question 37


The drug of choice to treat excessive fluid retention in the lungs would be _____ diuretics.


  1. Na+ channel inhibiting
  2. K+ sparing
  3. Thiazide
  4. Loop


Question 38


Thrombosis or dehydration can lead to _____ failure.


  1. Perirenal
  2. Postrenal
  3. Prerenal
  4. Intrarenal


Question 39


______ failure can be caused by prostatic hypertrophy.






Question 40


____________ is slow, insidious process of kidney destruction. It may go unrecognized for years as nephrons are destroyed and renal mass is reduced.

  1. Acute renal injury
  2. Post renal kidney injury
  3. Chronic renal failure
  4. Renal insufficiency



Question 41


Acute renal failure in adults is generally identified by oliguria (urine output <___ML/day).



  1. 200 ml/day
  2. 100 ml/day
  3. 400 ml/day
  4. 300 ml/day



Question 42


When the kidneys have too few nephrons to excrete metabolic wastes and regulate fluid and electrolyte balance adequately, the client is said to have _____, the final stage of Chronic Renal Failure.


  1. End-stage renal disease (ESRD)
  2. Acute tubular necrosis
  3. Dialysis
  4. Renal insufficiency



Question 43


Which diagnostic test would be monitored to evaluate glomerular filtration rate and renal function?



  1. Kidney biopsy
  2. Serum creatinine and BUN levels
  3. Urinalysis
  4. Na+ level



Question 44


_____ Failure is caused by acute damage to renal tissue and nephrons or acute tubular necrosis: abrupt decline in tubular and glomerular function due to either prolonged ischemia and/or exposure to nephrotoxins.



  1. Prerenal
  2. Intrarenal
  3. Perirenal

Question 45


Assuming steady-state conditions and that water and electrolyte intake remained constant, a 75% loss of nephrons due to chronic kidney disease would cause all of the following except:



  1. A large increase in plasma sodium concentration
  2. An increase in plasma creatinine to four times normal
  3. An increase in average volume excreted per remaining nephron to four times normal
  4. A significant increase in plasma phosphate concentration



Question 46


Autoregulation of glomerular filtration rate allows it to stay at a relatively constant level despite large fluctuation in arterial pressure.



  1. True
  2. False



Question 47


Hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman’s capsule can drastically increase by _________.



  1. Kidney stones
  2. Tubular necrosis
  3. Urinary tract obstruction
  4. Tubular obstruction



Question 48


Both primary and secondary aldosteronism can be treated with ______ diuretics. (Select all that apply.)



  1. Thiazide
  2. Loop
  3. Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists
  4. Na+ channel inhibitors



Question 49


  1. 40%
  2. 5%
  3. 30%
  4. 50%
  5. 20%



Question 50


Decreasing number of nephrons will cause ____ and _____ of surviving nephrons resulting in further deterioration of the existing nephrons.



  1. Hypotrophy, vasoconstriction
  2. Hypertrophy, vasodilation
  3. Hypertrophy, vasoconstriction
  4. Hypotrophy, vasodilation